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CS101- Introduction to Computing FINALTERM EXAMINATION mega paper 2012

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FINALTERM EXAMINATION
Spring 2010
CS101- Introduction to Computing (Session - 1)

Question No: 1 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
What is NOT a key factor while designing a website?
► Usability
► User-friendly
► Consistency
► Complexity (correct)

Question No: 2 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Communications on the internet is controlled by a set of two protocols which are ____________.
► IMAP and SMTP

► FTP and HTTP

► TCP and IP (correct)

► TCP and HTTP

Question No: 3 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A variable can be _________ in scope.
► Local
► Global
► Either local or global (correct)
► None of the given options

Question No: 4 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A protocol used for receiving email messages is called ____________.
► URL
► Telnet
► POP3 (correct)
► SMTP

Question No: 5 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Aliasing problem can be managed by ____________the size of pixels.
► Reducing (correct)
► Increasing
► Gaining
► Modifying

Question No: 6 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Serial arrangement in which things follow logical order or a recurrent pattern, such as statements executing one by one, is called __________.
► Loop
► Sequence (correct) 80% confidence
► Condition
► Array

Question No: 7 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following data types are recognized by JavaScript?
► Strings
► Numbers
► Undefined
► All of the given options (correct)

Question No: 8 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
a = Math.ceil(12.01)
What will be the value of a ?

► 12
► 13 (correct)
► 12.0
► 13.01

Question No: 9 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In the old days, databases did NOT support ____________.
► Number
► Boolean
► Video (correct)
► Text

Question No: 10 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The organizations are learning that business can be done in a more effective manner if emphasis is placed upon ___________.
► Cooperation
► Shared responsibility
► Networking
► All of the given options (correct)

Question No: 11 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Module level design is the responsibility of the ___________.
► Architect
► Team Lead
► Developer (correct)
► CEO

Question No: 12 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
_____________ errors are caused by the code that somehow violates the rule of the language.
► Syntax (correct)
► Semantic
► Run time
► Load time

Question No: 13 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The world first computer program was written to compute:
► Simple sequence
► Multiple sequence
► Bernoulli’s sequence (correct)
► Increasing sequence

Question No: 14 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Microsoft Word is a type of:
► System Software
► Freeware Software
► Shrink-Wrapped Software (correct)
► Custom-built Software

Question No: 15 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
We need _____________ for memory management in computer
► Software
► Hardware
► Operating System (correct)
► Application Software

Question No: 16 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
_____________ is generally measured in terms of the number of steps required to execute an algorithm.

► Space
► Time (correct)
► Memory and time
► Bandwidth

Question No: 17 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
PowerBuilder falls in the category of ______________.
►Assembly Languages
►4-th Generation Languages (correct)
►Machine Languages
►High-Level Languages

Question No: 18 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
___________ means to break down into simpler components and analyze.
►Recursion
►Parsing (correct)
►Scope
►Navigation

Question No: 19 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
for(var i=1; i<=2;i=i+1)
{
document.write( "Sorted Words:" + "
" )
}

Which of the following shall be the output of above code:
►Sorted Words: Sorted Words:
►Sorted Words:
Sorted Words:
► Sorted Words: “
”
Sorted Words: “
”

►Sorted Words:

Sorted Words:
(correct)

Question No: 20 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Assembly languages allow a programmer to use _________ for numbers.
► Object

► Entity

► Name (correct)

► Interpreter

Question No: 21 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
__________ means you have only one container to store more than one value in JavaScript.
► Variable
► Matrix
► Array
► String

Question No: 22 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Coding is the responsibility of ________________
► Software designer
► Software developer (correct)
► Project manager
► None of given

Question No: 23 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
CEO stands for____________________
► Central Executive officer
► Chief External officer
► Chief executive officer (correct)
► None of given

Question No: 24 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Decision Support Systems will become a bigger part of the professional life of the________ .
► Doctors
► Mangers
► Marketers
► All of above (correct)

Question No: 25 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The output of fuzzy Logic System is computed by using ______Technique.
► MAX-MAX
► MAX-MIN
► MIN-MAX (correct)
► None of the given

Question No: 26 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In the statement Math.PI, Math is _________ and PI is ___________.
► Variable, Constant
► Object , Method
► Object , Function
► Object , Property (correct)

Question No: 27 ( Marks: 2 )
For what purposes FTP is used in networks ?
Question No: 28 ( Marks: 2 )
In JavaScript, what is event handling? What are the two types of events?

Question No: 29 ( Marks: 2 )
Define the key weakness of the web?

Question No: 30 ( Marks: 2 )
What was the obstacle to the construction of analytical engine?
Question No: 31 ( Marks: 3 )
The event handler attribute consists of three parts. Write about each of them.

Question No: 32 ( Marks: 3 )
Who is a Computing Professional?
.

Question No: 33 ( Marks: 3 )
Give any three applications of computer graphics?

Question No: 34 ( Marks: 5 )
Mention any five applications of Artificial Intelligent System.

Question No: 35 ( Marks: 5 )
What are the important properties, methods and event handlers of image object?

Question No: 36 ( Marks: 5 )
Explain function arguments with the help of an example?

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ECO402 final term solve paper January 2012 Virtual university of Pakistan

Sat, 21 Jan 2012 05:22:02 -0500

1. When the demand curve is downward sloping, marginal revenue is

equal to price.
equal to average revenue.
less than price.
more than price.

2. For the monopolist shown below, the profit maximizing level of output is:

a. Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.

3. How much profit will the monopolist whose cost and demand curves are shown below earn at output Q1?

0CDQ1.
0BEQ1.
0AFQ1.
ACDF.
e. BCDE.

4. Which of the following is NOT true regarding monopoly?

Monopoly is the sole producer in the market.
Monopoly price is determined from the demand curve.
c. Monopolist can charge as high a price as it likes.
Monopoly demand curve is downward sloping.

5. Which of the following is true at the output level where P=MC?

The monopolist is maximizing profit.
The monopolist is not maximizing profit and should increase output.
c. The monopolist is not maximizing profit and should decrease output.
The monopolist is earning a positive profit.

6. Compared to the equilibrium price and quantity sold in a competitive market, a monopolist will charge a ______________ price and sell a ______________ quantity.

higher; larger
lower; larger
c. higher; smaller
lower; smaller
none of these

7. Assume that a profit maximizing monopolist is producing a quantity such that marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost. We can conclude that the

firm is maximizing profit.
b. firm's output is smaller than the profit maximizing quantity.
firm's output is larger than the profit maximizing quantity.
firm's output does not maximize profit, but we cannot conclude whether the output is too large or too small.

8. To find the profit maximizing level of output, a firm finds the output level where

price equals marginal cost.
marginal revenue and average total cost.
price equals marginal revenue.
all of the above.
e. none of the above.

9. As the manager of a firm you calculate the marginal revenue is $152 and marginal cost is $200. You should

expand output.
do nothing without information about your fixed costs.
c. reduce output until marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
expand output until marginal revenue equals zero.
reduce output beyond the level where marginal revenue equals zero.

10. Suppose that a firm can produce its output at either of two plants. If profits are maximized, which of the following statements is true?

The marginal cost at the first plant must equal marginal revenue.
The marginal cost at the second plant must equal marginal revenue.
The marginal cost at the two plants must be equal.
d. all of the above.
none of the above.

11. The monopolist has no supply curve because

a. the quantity supplied at any particular price depends on the monopolist's demand curve.
the monopolist's marginal cost curve changes considerably over time.
the relationship between price and quantity depends on both marginal cost and average cost.
there is a single seller in the market.
although there is only a single seller at the current price, it is impossible to know how many sellers would be in the market at higher prices.

12. When a per unit tax is imposed on the sale of a product of a monopolist, the resulting price increase will

always be less than the tax.
always be more than the tax.
always be less than if a similar tax were imposed on firms in a competitive market.
d. not always be less than the tax.

13. The monopoly supply curve is the

same as the competitive market supply curve.
portion of marginal costs curve where marginal costs exceed the minimum value of average variable costs.
result of market power and production costs.
d. none of the above.

14. For a monopolist, changes in demand will lead to changes in

price with no change in output.
output with no change in price.
c. both price and quantity.
any of the above can be true.

15. Use the following two statements to answer this question:

I. For a monopolist, at every output level, average revenue is equal to price.

II. For a monopolist, at every output level, marginal revenue is equal to price.

Both I and II are true.
b. I is true, and II is false.
I is false, and II is true.
Both I and II are false.
Statements I and II could either be true or false depending upon demand.

16. Which of the following is NOT true for monopoly?

The profit maximizing output is the one at which marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal.
Average revenue equals price.
The profit maximizing output is the one at which the difference between total revenue and total cost is largest.
The monopolist's demand curve is the same as the market demand curve.
e. At the profit maximizing output, price equals marginal cost.

17. If a monopolist sets her output such that marginal revenue, marginal cost and average total cost are equal, economic profit must be:

negative.
b. positive.
zero.
indeterminate from the given information.

18. A monopolist has equated marginal revenue to zero. The firm has:

maximized profit.
b. maximized revenue.
minimized cost.
minimized profit.

19. A monopolist has determined that at the current level of output the price elasticity of
demand is -0.15. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The firm should cut output.
This is typical for a monopolist; output should not be altered.
The firm should increase output.
None of the above is necessarily correct.

20. A monopolist has set her level of output to maximize profit. The firm's marginal revenue is $20, and the price elasticity of demand is -2.0. The firm's profit maximizing price is approximately:

$0
$20
c. $40
$10
This problem cannot be answered without knowing the marginal cost.

Barbara is a producer in a monopoly industry. Her demand curve, total revenue curve, marginal revenue curve and total cost curve are given as follows:

21. Refer to Scenario 1. How much output will Barbara produce?

0
22
56
72
none of the above

22. Refer to Scenario 1. The price of her product will be _____.

4
b. 22
32
42
72

23. Refer to Scenario 1. How much profit will she make?

-996
0
c. 1,296
1,568
none of the above

A monopolist faces the following demand curve, marginal revenue curve, total cost curve and marginal cost curve for its product:

Q = 200 - 2P

MR = 100 - Q

TC = 5Q

MC = 5

24. Refer to Scenario 2. What level of output maximizes total revenue?

0
90
95
d. 100
none of the above

25. Refer to Scenario 2. What is the profit maximizing level of output?

0
90
c. 95
100
none of the above

26. Refer to Scenario 2. What is the profit maximizing price?

$95.00.
$5.00.
c. $52.50.
$10.00.

27. Refer to Scenario 2. How much profit does the monopolist earn?

a. $4512.50.
$4987.50.
$475.00.
$5.00.

28. Refer to Scenario 2. Suppose that a tax of $5 for each unit produced is imposed by state government. What is the profit maximizing level of output?

0
b. 90
95
100
none of the above

29. Refer to Scenario 2. Suppose that a tax of $5 for each unit produced is imposed by state government. What is the profit maximizing price?

$90.00.
$10.00.
c. $55.00.
$52.50.

30. Refer to Scenario 2. Suppose that a tax of $5 for each unit produced is imposed by state government. How much profit does the monopolist earn?

a. $4050.
$4950.
$450.
$5.

31. Refer to Scenario 2. Suppose that in addition to the tax, a business license is required to stay in business. The license costs $1000. What happens to profit?

It increases by $1000.
b. It decreases by $1000.
It decreases by less than $1000.
It stays the same.

32. Refer to Scenario 2. Suppose that in addition to the tax, a business license is required to stay in business. The license costs $1000. What is the profit maximizing level of output?

0
b. 90
95
100
none of the above

The demand curve and marginal revenue curve for red herrings are given as follows:

Q = 250 - 5P

MR = 50 - 0.4Q

33. Refer to Scenario 3. What level of output maximizes revenue?

0
45
85
d. 125
245

34. Refer to Scenario 3. The marginal cost of red herrings is given as: MC = 0.6Q. What is the profit-maximizing level of output?

0
25
c. 50
60
125

35. Refer to Scenario 3. At the profit-maximizing level of output, demand is

completely inelastic.
inelastic, but not completely inelastic.
unit elastic.
d. elastic, but not infinitely elastic.
infinitely elastic.

36. Refer to Scenario 3. Compared to a competitive red herring industry, the monopolistic red herring industry

produces more output at a higher price.
b. produces less output at a higher price.
produces more output at a lower price.
produces less output at a lower price.
not enough information to relate the monopolistic red herring industry to a competitive industry.

37. Refer to Scenario 3. Suppose that a tax of $5 per unit of output is imposed on red herring producers. The price of red herring will

not change.
b. increase by less than $5.
increase by $5.
increase by more than $5.
decrease.

The demand for tickets to the Meat Loaf concert (Q) is given as follows:

Q = 120,000 - 2,000P

The marginal revenue is given as:

MR = 60 - .001Q

The stadium at which the concert is planned holds 60,000 people. The marginal cost of each additional concert goer is essentially zero up to 60,000 fans, but becomes infinite beyond that point.

38. Refer to Scenario 4. Given the information above, what are the profit maximizing number of tickets sold and the price of tickets?

0, $60
20,000, $50
40,000, $40
d. 60,000, $30
80,000, $20

39. Refer to Scenario 4. Suppose that the municipal stadium authority imposes a tax of $10 per ticket on the concert promoters. Given the information above, the profit maximizing ticket price would

increase by $10.
b. increase by $5.
not change.
decrease by $5.
decrease by $10.

40. Refer to Scenario 4. A multiplant monopolist can produce her output in either of two plants. Having sold all of her output she discovers that the marginal cost in plant 1 is $30 while the marginal cost in plant 2 is $20. To maximize profits the firm will

produce more output in plant 1 and less in the plant 2.
do nothing until it acquires more information on revenues.
c. produce less output in plant 1 and more in plant 2.
produce less in both plants until marginal revenue is zero.
shut down plant 1 and only produce at plant 2 in the future.

A firm produces garden hoses in California and in Ohio. The marginal cost of producing garden hoses in the two states and the marginal revenue from producing garden hoses are given in the following table:

California

Ohio

Qc

MCc

Qo

MCo

Qc+o

MR

1

2

1

3

1

24

2

3

2

4

2

20

3

5

3

6

3

16

4

9

4

8

4

12

5

16

5

12

5

8

6

24

6

17

6

4

41. Refer to Scenario 5. From the perspective of the firm, what is the marginal cost of the 5th garden hose?

4
b. 5
16
12
8

42. Refer to Scenario 5. How many garden hoses should be produced in California in order to maximize profits?

1
2
c. 3
4
5

John is the manufacturer of red rubber balls (Q). He has a red rubber ball manufacturing plant in California, Florida and Montana. The total cost of producing red rubber balls at each of the three plants is given by the following table:

California

Florida

Montana

Qc

TCc

Qf

TCf

Qm

TCm

1

5

1

8

1

4

2

10

2

16

2

8

3

15

3

24

3

12

4

20

4

32

4

16

5

25

5

40

5

20

6

30

6

48

6

24

7

35

7

56

7

28

8

40

8

64

8

32

9

45

9

72

9

36

10

50

10

80

10

40

11

infinity

11

infinity

11

infinity

43. Refer to Scenario 6. If red rubber balls can be produced at any of the three plants, what is the marginal cost of 5th red rubber ball?

a. 4
5
8
20
none of the above

44. Refer to Scenario 6. If red rubber balls can be produced at any of the three plants, and John decides to produce 1 red rubber ball, at which plant will he produce it?

California
Florida
c. Montana
he is indifferent between California and Florida
he is indifferent between Florida and Montana

45. The demand curve and marginal revenue curve for red rubber balls are given as follows:

Q = 16 - P MR = 16 - 2Q

What level of output maximizes profit?

0
4
5.5
d. 6
(b), © and (d) all maximize profit.

46. What is the profit maximizing price?

a. 10
20
3
40
none of the above

47. At the profit-maximizing level of output, demand is

completely inelastic.
inelastic, but not completely inelastic.
unit elastic.
d. elastic, but not infinitely elastic.
infinitely elastic.

48. Suppose that a tax of $2 per unit of output is imposed on red rubber ball producers. What level of output maximizes profit?

-1
3
4.5
d. 5
(b), © and (d) are correct

49. After the imposition of a tax of $2 per unit of output, what is the profit maximizing price?

a. 11
21
31
41
none of the above

The marginal revenue of green ink pads is given as follows:

MR = 2500 - 5Q

The marginal cost of green ink pads is 5Q.

50. Refer to Scenario 7. How many ink pads will be produced to maximize revenue?

0
250
300
500
none of the above

51. Refer to Scenario 7. How many ink pads will be produced to maximize profit?

50
b. 250
500
800
none of the above

52. Refer to Scenario 7. Suppose that the firm chooses to produce 200 ink pads. At this level of output the demand for ink pads is

inelastic.
unit elastic.
c. elastic.
d. unit elastic.

53. The marginal cost of a monopolist is constant and is $10. The marginal revenue curve is given as follows:

MR = 100 - 2Q

The profit maximizing price is

$70
$65
$60
d. $55
$50

54. A multiplant firm has equated marginal costs at each plant. By doing this

profits are maximized.
b. costs are minimized given the level of output.
revenues are maximized given the level of output.
none of the above.

55. The _____ elastic a firm's demand curve, the greater its _____.

a. less; monopoly power
less; output
more; monopoly power
more; costs

56. Monopoly power results from the ability to

set price equal to marginal cost.
equate marginal cost to marginal revenue.
set price above average variable cost.
d. set price above marginal cost.

57. What is the value of the Lerner index under perfect competition?

1
b. 0
infinity
two times the price

58. The more elastic the demand facing a firm,

the higher the value of the Lerner index.
b. the lower the value of the Lerner index.
the less monopoly power it has.
the higher its profit.

59. The Lerner index measures

a firm's potential monopoly power.
b. the amount of monopoly power a firm chooses to exercises when maximizing profits.
a firm's potential profitability.
an industry's potential market power.

60. Assume that a firm's marginal cost is $10 and the elasticity of demand is -2. We can conclude that the firm's profit maximizing price is approximately

a. $20.
$5.
$10.
The answer cannot be determined without additional information.

61. Use the following two statements to answer this question:

I. A firm can exert monopoly power if and only if it is the sole producer of a good.

II. The degree of monopoly power a firm possesses can be measured using the Lerner Index: L=(P-AC)/AC.

Both I and II are true.
I is true, and II is false.
I is false, and II is true.
d. Both I and II are false.

62. Suppose that the competitive market for rice in Japan was suddenly monopolized. The effect of such a change would be:

to decrease the price of rice to the Japanese people.
b. to decrease the consumer surplus of Japanese rice consumers.
to decrease the producer surplus of Japanese rice producers.
a welfare gain for the Japanese people.
increase the consumption of rice by the Japanese people.

63. Which of the following is NOT associated with a high degree of monopoly power?

A relatively inelastic demand curve for the firm.
A small number of firms in the market.
c. Significant price competition among firms in the market.
Significant barriers to entry.

64. Which factors determine the firm's elasticity of demand?

Elasticity of market demand and number of firms.
Number of firms and the nature of interaction among firms.
c. Elasticity of market demand, number of firms, and the nature of interaction among firms.
None of the above.

65. When a drug company develops a new drug it is granted a _____ making it illegal for other firms to enter the market until the _____ expires.

franchise; franchise
copyright; copyright
government license; government license
d. patent; patent

66. The firms in a market have decided not to compete with one another and have agreed to limit output and raise price.

This practice is known as concentrating and is legal in the United States and Canada.
b. This practice is known as collusion and is illegal in the United States.
In this way firms take advantage of economies of scale.
This is an effective barrier to entry, but is illegal in the United States.

67. Under which of the following scenarios is it most likely that monopoly power will be exhibited by firms?

a. When there are few firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively inelastic.
When there are many firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively inelastic.
When there are few firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively elastic.
When there are many firms in the market and the demand curve faced by each firm is relatively elastic.

Figure 10.1

The revenue and cost curves in the diagram above are those of a natural monopoly.

68. Refer to Figure 10.1. If the monopolist is not regulated, the price will be set at _____.

P1
b. P2
P3
P4
none of the above

69. Refer to Figure 10.1. Suppose that the government decides to limit monopoly power with price regulation. If the government sets the price at the competitive level, it will set the price at _____.

P1
P2
P3
d. P4
none of the above

70. Refer to Figure 10.1. The minimum feasible price is _____.

P1
P2
c. P3
P4
none of the above

71. With respect to monopolies, deadweight loss refers to the

socially unproductive amounts of money spent to obtain or acquire a monopoly.
b. net loss in consumer and producer surplus due to a monopolist’s pricing strategy/policy.
lost consumer surplus from monopolistic pricing.
none of the above.

72. The regulatory lag:

always benefits the regulated firm.
b. is likely to occur with rate-of-return regulation.
promotes economic efficiency.
all of the above.

73. The monopolist that maximizes profit

a. imposes a cost on society because the selling price is above marginal cost.
imposes a cost on society because the selling price is equal to marginal cost.
does not impose a cost on society because the selling price is above marginal cost.
does not impose a cost on society because price is equal to marginal cost.

74. Deadweight loss from monopoly power is expressed on a graph as the area between the

competitive price and the average revenue curve bounded by the quantities produced by the competitive and monopoly markets.
competitive price line and the marginal cost curve bounded by the quantities produced by competitive and monopoly markets.
competitive price line and the monopoly price line bounded by zero output and the output chosen by the monopolist.
d. average revenue curve and the marginal cost curve bounded by the quantities produced by competitive and monopoly markets.

75. Which of the following is true when the government imposes a price ceiling on a monopolist?

Marginal revenue becomes horizontal.
Marginal revenue is linear.
c. Marginal revenue is kinked--horizontal and then downward sloping.
Marginal revenue is kinked--downward sloping and then horizontal.

76. If the regulatory agency sets a price where AR=AC for a natural monopoly, output will be

equal to the competitive level.
equal to the monopoly profit maximizing level.
c. greater than the monopoly profit maximizing level and less than the competitive level.
greater than the competitive level.

77. If a monopolist's profits were taxed away and redistributed to its consumers,

a. inefficiency would remain because output would be lower than under competitive conditions.
inefficiency would remain, but not because output would be lower than under competitive conditions.
efficiency would be obtained because output would be increased to the competitive level.
efficiency would be obtained because output would be increased and profits removed.

78. Which of the following statements about natural monopolies is true?

Natural monopolies are in the markets for natural resources (like crude oil and coal).
b. For natural monopolies, marginal cost is always below average cost.
For natural monopolies, average cost is always increasing.
Natural monopolies cannot be regulated.

Figure 10.2

79. Refer to Figure 10.2. At output Qm, and assuming that the monopoly has set her price to maximize profit, the consumer surplus is:

a. CDE.
BDEF.
ADEG.
0DEQm.
none of the above.

80. Refer to Figure 10.2. In moving from the competitive level of output and price to the monopoly level of output and price, the monopolist is able to add to producer surplus:

the area BCEF.
b. the area BCEF less the area GFH.
the area BCEH.
the area BCEH less the area GFH.
none of the above.

81. Refer to Figure 10.2. In moving from the competitive level of output and price to the monopoly level of output and price, the deadweight loss is the area:

QmEHQc.
b. GEH.
GFH.
FEH.
none of the above.

Use the following information to answer the next question:

The marginal cost of a monopolist is constant and is $10. The demand curve and marginal revenue curves are given as follows:

demand: Q = 100 - P

marginal revenue: MR = 100 - 2Q

82. The deadweight loss from monopoly power is

$1000.00
b. $1012.50
$1025.00
$1037.50
none of the above

Scenario 8:

Adriana is a monopolist producing green calculators. The average and marginal cost curves and average and marginal revenue curves for her product are given as follows:

AC = Q+(10,000/Q) MC = 2Q AR = 30-(Q/2) MR = 30-Q

83. Refer to Scenario 8. Suppose that the regulatory agency sets your price where average revenue equals average cost. How much profit will Adriana make?

She will lose money and will go out of business.
b. She will break even.
She will make a profit.
none of the above.

84. Refer to Scenario 8. The deadweight loss from monopoly is

0
b. 5
10
25
none of the above

Scenario 9:

Maui Macadamia Inc. has a monopoly in the macadamia nut industry. The demand curve, marginal revenue and marginal cost curve for macadamia nuts are given as follows:

P = 360 - 4Q MR = 360 - 8Q MC = 4Q

85. Refer to Scenario 9. What level of output maximizes the sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus?

0
30
c. 45
60
none of the above

86. Refer to Scenario 9. What is the profit maximizing level of output?

0
b. 30
45
60
none of the above

87. Refer to Scenario 9. At the profit maximizing level of output, what is the level of consumer surplus?

0
b. 1,800
2,700
3,600
4,800

88. Refer to Scenario 9. At the profit maximizing level of output, what is the level of producer surplus?

0
1,800
c. 5,400
7,200
9,600

89. Refer to Scenario 9. At the profit maximizing level of output, what is the deadweight loss?

0
450
c. 900
1,800
none of the above

90. The situation in which buyers are able to affect the price of a good is referred to as ______________ power.

monopoly
purchasing
c. monopsony
countervailing

91. For a competitive buyer, the marginal expenditure per unit of an input

exceeds the average expenditure per unit.
is less than the average expenditure per unit.
c. equals the average expenditure per unit.
any of the above could be true.

92. Which of the following is true for a competitive buyer?

a. AE=ME.
AE>ME.
AE AE greater than or equal to ME.

93. For a monopsony buyer, the marginal expenditure per unit of an input

a. exceeds the average expenditure per unit.
is less than the average expenditure per unit.
equals the average expenditure per unit.
any of the above could be true.

94. A monopsonist will buy _____ units of input than a competitor, and will pay _____ per unit.

a. fewer; less
more; less
fewer; more
more; more

95. Unlike a competitive buyer,

a monopsonist faces an upward-sloping industry supply curve.
a monopsonist pays a different price for each unit purchased.
a monopsonist sets marginal value equal to marginal expenditure.
d. the price that a monopsonist pays depends on the number of units purchased.

Figure 10.3

The marginal value curve and expenditure curves in the aabove are those of a monopsony.

96. Refer to Figure 10.3. What quantity will the monopsonist purchase to maximize profit?

Q1
Q2
c. Q3
Q4
none of the above

97. Refer to Figure 10.3. What price will the monopsonist pay when maximizing profit?

P1
P2
P3
P4
e. P5

98. Refer to Figure 10.3. What quantity will be purchased in a competitive market?

Q1
Q2
Q3
d. Q4
none of the above

99. Refer to Figure 10.3. What is the competitive price?

P1
P2
P3
d. P4
P5

100. In an oligopsony market:

there are many buyers and sellers.
there are many buyers and a single seller.
there is a single buyer and many sellers.
d. there are a few buyers and many sellers.
there are a few buyers and a few sellers.

Section 10.6

101. In a bilateral monopoly, equilibrium price will

favor the seller.
favor the buyer.
approximate the competitive equilibrium price.
d. not be determined by a simple rule.

102. In a market with a bilateral monopoly:

a. there is a single buyer and a single seller.
there are many buyers and a single seller.
there is a single buyer and few sellers.
there are a few buyers and many sellers.
there are a few buyers and a few sellers.

103. The degree of monopsony power that a firm enjoys is determined by

elasticity of market demand, elasticity of market supply, and number of buyers in the market.
b. elasticity of market supply, number of buyers in the market, and how buyers interact.
number of buyers in the market, how buyers interact, and number of sellers of the resource.
how buyers interact, number of sellers of the resource, and elasticity of market demand.

104. The percentage "markdown" due to monopsony power is equal to

(P - MC)/P
1/ED
c. (MV - P)P
P[1 + (1/ED)]

105. The following diagram shows marginal value and expenditure curves for a monopsony. In moving from the competitive price and quantity to the monopsony price and quantity, the deadweight loss from monopsony power is the area:

ACDF
CDE
EDG
d. FDG
BCDG

106. Which of the following is true of the antitrust laws in the United States? They are

designed to make the business environment more equitable.
b. designed to promote a competitive economy.
deliberately written in a way to make clear to all what is and what is not allowed.
deliberately written in a language to promote cooperation among businesses.

107. Predatory pricing is defined to be

collusive pricing.
b. behavior designed to drive out current competition.
cooperative behavior between two firms with monopoly power.
collusion.

108. Which of the following is not an important antitrust law?

the Sherman Act of 1890
the Clayton Act of 1914
c. the Consumer Protection Act of 1932
the Federal Trade Commission Act of 1914
None of the above are antitrust laws.

cs101 final term subjective paper fall 2011 January 2012

Thu, 19 Jan 2012 01:41:01 -0500

[B]Question No: 31 ( Marks: 1 )
What is bandwidth?
Bandwidth is a capacity of communication channel of carrying data.
Question No: 32 ( Marks: 1 )
What is “My Personal Agent”?
A computer programe that work automatically and have voice interface
Question No: 33 ( Marks: 2 )
For what purposes FTP is used in networks ?
To download or upload files / data to a remote computer
Question No: 34 ( Marks: 2 )
How can you define a readable program?
A program that is easy to read & understand also easy to maintain and enhance.
Question No: 35 ( Marks: 3 )
What is the preferred organizational structure for the organization?
The Network Organization: It is becoming the preferred organizational structure.
Question No: 36 ( Marks: 3 )
How can you define a consistent web design? Why is it needed?
A consistent web design is Easy understandable, not with heavy graphics, easy
navigation. It is needed because most of the website views leave the site because of poor
navigation and not easy to understand, text and design is not clear etc.
Question No: 37 ( Marks: 3 )
Elaborate Vector or Object oriented graphics with atleast one example.[/B]

CS601 Data Communication solve subjective and mcqz final term paper January 2012

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CS601 Data Communication solve subjective and mcqz final term paper January 2012

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cs201 Introduction to Programming final term solve paper January 2012

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eng 201 final term paper Business and Technical English Writing January 2012

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Business and Technical English Writing
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CS302- Digital Logic Design final term subjective paper January 2012

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cs504 solve mcqz final term paper January 2012

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Str = 0;// str is string Which rewritten from of above line of code is more in line with the self-documentation philosophy than the code above.
Str = false;
Str = NULL;
Str = ‘\0;
Str = 0.0;

Struct packed_struct { unsigned int f1:1;} pack; Here in “packed_struct”:
Value of f1 =1
Size of f1 = 1 bit
Value of f1 should not exceede 1 (Not Sure)
None of given options

In the switch statement, cases should always end with a -------statment.
Switch
Go
Break
Stop

Bit fields are a convenient way to express many difficult operations. However, bit fields suffer from one problem.
Lack of Usability
Lack of Security
Lack of Performance
Lack of Portability

If(!(block < activeBlock)) is equvivalent to.
If ((block < activeBlock))
If ((block == activeBlock))
If ((block >= activeBlock))
None of the given

Bit fields allow the packing of data in a structure. Using Bit fields we can.
Read 9 bit integers
Avoid memory leakages
Avoid memory overflow
Avoid syntax errors

The order in which bytes of one word are stored is _________ dependent.
Hardware
Software
Language
Syntax

In order to write a portable code which of the following guideline will be helpful:
Stick to the standards
Program in the mainstream
Size of data types
All of give options

Complex expressions.
Make the code easy to modify
Make the code difficult to modify
Make the code easy to understand
Does not effect understandability

In the switch statement, cases should always end with a -------statement.
Switch
Go
Break
Stop

x = 0; // x is floating pt Which rewritten form of above line of code is more in line with the self-documentation philosophy than the code above.
x = false
x = NULL
x = 0.0;
x = ‘\0’

using proper paranthesis normally makes the code.
easy to read
easy to understand
less ambiguous
All of the given options

The use of comments should be minimized by making the code self-documenting by appropriate name choices and an explicit logical structure.
True
False

Bit fields allow the packing of data in a structure. using Bit fields we can:
Read 9 bit integers
Avoid memory leakages
Avoid memory overflow
Avoid syntax errors

1) x = (a + 2 > 3)? a : a-1 ; 2) if((a + 2)> 3) x = a; else x = a - 1;
Statement (2) is more complex than (1)
Statement (2) is more complex than (1)
Both statements are very complex
None of the given option

80/20 rule states that:
you spend 80 percent of your time in 20 percent of the code
you spend 20 percent of your time in 80 percent of the code
We should try to optimized 80 percent or at least 20 percent of the code
None of the given options.

Be very careful when you use functions with side effects – functions that change the values of the ________.
Objects
Classes
Structures
Variables

Comma ( , ) is very dangerous because.
Compiler does not recognise this symbol
It creates linkage problem
It causes side effects
All of the given options (Not Sure)

The C/C++ language has not specified whether ____ is arithmetic or logical.
Right shift >>
Right shift
&&
||

In order to make a code more portable, Instead of using vendor specific language extensions, use _______ as much as possible.
STL
ANSI
ISO
CMMI

The order in which bytes of one word are stored is _________ dependent.
hardware
software
language
syntax

Be very careful when you use functions with side effects – functions that change the values of the ________.
Objects
Classes
Structures
Variables

When a small set of functions (which use each other) is so overwhelmingly the bottleneck, there are two alternatives:
use a better algorithm OR re-write the code
debug the code OR place assertions in code
remove the functions OR add more functions
changed programming language OR compiler at least

_______ cause major portability issues
Loops (Not Sure)
Bugs in code
Sizes of data types
Conditional Structures

In the switch statement, cases should always end with a -------statment.
Switch
Go
Break
Stop

Some bit field members are stored: I) left to right II) right to left III) in circular array.
only (I) is true
Only (II) is true
Both (I) and (II) are true
All of the options (I, II and III) are true

x = 0; // x is floating pt Which rewritten form of above line of code is more in line with the self-documentation philosophy than the code above.
x = false
x = NULL
x = 0.0;
x = ‘\0’

Comma ( , ) is very dangerous because
Compiler does not recognise this symbol
It creates linkage problem
It causes side effects
All of the given options(Not sure)

using proper paranthesis normally makes the code
easy to read
easy to understand
less ambiguous
All of the given options

The use of comments should be minimized by making the code self-documenting by appropriate name choices and an explicit logical structure.
True
False

Bit fields allow the packing of data in a structure. using Bit fields we can:
Read 9 bit integers
avoid memory leakages
avoid memory overflow
Avoid syntax errors

Be very careful when you use functions with side effects – functions that change the values of the ________.
Objects
Classes
Structures
Variables

A test case involves
Input/output specification plus a statement of the function under test
Steps to perform the function
Expected results that the software application produces
All of the given options

The C/C++ language has not specified whether ____ is arithmetic or logical.
Right shift >>
Right shift
&&
||

If an application fulfills its specifications but deviates from users expectations or their desired behavior. This means, software is verified but not ------------
Validated
Corrected
Checked
Traced

The raising of the imaginary error flag is simply called raising or ________ an error.
Catching
Casting
Throwing
None of given options

struct packed_struct { unsigned int f1:1; } pack; Here in "packed_struct":
value of f1 = 1
size of f1 = 1 bit
value of f1 should not exceede 1
None of given options

The idea behind exception handling is to raise some error flag every time ________.
The code compiles
The code links
Memory is allocated
Something goes wrong

Bit fields allow the packing of data in a structure. using Bit fields we can:
Read 9 bit integers
avoid memory leakages
avoid memory overflow
Avoid syntax errors

The order in which bytes of one word are stored is _________ dependent.
hardware
software
language
syntax

A __________ is a variance from a desired product attribute.
Exception
Error
Mistake
Defect

The C/C++ language does not define the alignment of items within.
structures
classes
unions
All of the given options

The raising of the imaginary error flag is simply called raising or ________ an error
Catching
Casting
Throwing
None of given options

Consider the following statement: int a,b=10; Which of the following is correct:
variable "a" is initialized to 10
Variable "b" is initialized to 10
Both variables "a" and "b" are initialized to 10
variables can not be initialized this way

Exception handling is a powerful technique that separates error-handling code from ______ code.
Normal
Faulty
Buggy
Complex

Bit fields are a convenient way to express many difficult operations. However, bit fields suffer from one problem.
Lack of usability
Lack of security
Lack of performance
Lack of portability

The complexity of a program may ______ if there are exceptional paths in it
Decrease
Increase
Remain same
All of given options

When an error is thrown the overall system (on the lookout for this error flag) responds by ______ the error.
Ignoring
Casting
Catching
All of the given options(Not Sure)

Comments are not syntax checked
TRUE
FALSE

Modularity is a tool that can help us in increasing the size of individual functions, making them less readable.
True
False

CS101 Introduction to Computing FINAL TERM PAPERS SOLVED MCQS January 2012

Sun, 15 Jan 2012 06:48:59 -0500

CS101 Introduction to Computing FINAL TERM PAPERS SOLVED MCQS January 2012

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cs201 Introduction to Programming final term solve paper January 2012

Sun, 15 Jan 2012 02:49:44 -0500

Marks: 58

Question No: 1 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

*.doc is _____________ by type.

.

► Sequential File

► Random Access File

► Data File

► Record File

Question No: 2 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

Which of the following is NOT a preprocessor directive?

► #error

► #define

► #line

► #ndefine

Question No: 3 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

The return type of operator function must always be void.

► True

► False

Question No: 4 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

What does (*this) represents?

► The current function of the class

► The current pointer of the class

► The current object of the class

► A value of the data member

Question No: 5 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

The statement cin.get (); is used to,

► Read a string from keyboard

► Read a character from keyboard

► Read a string from file

► Read a

Question No: 6 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

When we do dynamic memory allocation in the constructor of a class, then it is necessary to provide a destructor.

► True

► False

Question No: 7 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

Overloaded new operator function takes parameter of type size_t and returns

► void (nothing)

► void pointer

► object pointer

► int pointer

Question No: 8 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

The second parameter of operator functions for and >> are objects of the class for which we are overloading these operators.

► True

► False

Question No: 9 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

C++ is a case-sensitive language

► True

► False

Question No: 10 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

To include code from the library in the program, such as iostream, a directive would be called up using this command.

► #include “iostream.h”

► include

► include

► #include

Question No: 11 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

A template function must have only generic data types.

► True

► False

Question No: 12 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

Template class can not have static variables.

► True

► False

Question No: 13 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

What will be the correct syntax to assign an array named arr of 5 elements to a pointer ptr?

► *ptr = arr ;

► ptr = arr ;

► *ptr = arr[5] ;

► ptr = arr[5] ;

Question No: 14 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

What will be the correct syntax to access the value of fourth element of an array using pointer ptr?

► ptr[3]

► (ptr+3)

► *(ptr+3)

►

Question No: 15 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

If most significant bit of un-signed number is 1 then it represents a positive number.

► True

► False

Question No: 16 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

If there is a symbol (& sign) used with the variable name followed by data type then it refers to _____ and if & is being used with variable name then it refers to _____.

► Address of variable, reference variable

► Reference variable, value of variable

► Reference variable, address of variable

► Address of variable, value of variable

Question No: 17 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

We can also do conditional compilation with preprocessor directives.

► True

► False

Question No: 18 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

The default value of a parameter can be provided inside the ________________

► function prototype

► function definition

► both function prototype or function definition

► none of the given options.

Question No: 19 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

Classes defined inside other classes are called ________ classes

► looped

► nested

► overloaded

► none of the given options.

Question No: 20 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

What purpose do classes serve?

► Data encapsulation

► Providing a convenient way of modeling real-world objects

► Simplifying code reuse

► All of the given options

Question No: 21 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

Every class contains _______________.

► Constructor

► Destructor

► Both a constructor and a destructor

► None of the given options

Question No: 22 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

new operator is used to allocate memory from the free store during

► Compile Time

► Run Time

► Link Time

► None of the given options

Question No: 23 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

When an object of a class is defined inside another class then,

► Destructor of enclosing class will be called first

► Destructor of inner object will be called first

► Constructor and Destructor will be called simultaneously

► None of the given options

Question No: 24 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

It is possible to define a class within another class.

► True

► False

Question No: 25 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

New and Delete are also used with ___________ and data types as well.

► Class, Objects

► Structures, Pointers

► Both Class and structures

► None of above

Question No: 26 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

With New keyword, data types and class members are initialized with meaningful values instead of garbage.

► True

► False

Question No: 27 ( Marks: 2 )

How many arguments a Unary Operator take? Can we make a binary operator as unary operator?

Ans: Unary operator takes only one aurgument like i++ or i— (Post increment or post decrement operators for intergers) or ++i,--i (Pre increment or pre decrement operators for intergers) ,we can not make Unary operator as binary or binary as Unary operator.

Question No: 28 ( Marks: 2 )

Which arithmetic operators cannot have a floating point operand?

Ans:

Modulus operator

This operator can only be used with integer operands ONLY

Question No: 29 ( Marks: 2 )

What are manipulators? Give one example.

Ans:

The manipulators are like something that can be inserted into stream, effecting a change in the behavior. For example, if we have a floating point number, say pi (л, and have written it as float pi = 3.1415926 ; Now there is need of printing the value of pi up to two decimal places i.e. 3.14 . This is a formatting functionality. For this, we have a manipulator that tells about width and number of decimal points of a number being printed.

Some manipulators are parameter less. We simply use the name of the manipulator that works. For example, we have been using endl, which is actually a manipulator, not data. When we write cout endl ; a new line is output besides flushing the buffer.

Actually, it manipulates the output stream.

Question No: 30 ( Marks: 2 )

Write down piece of code that will declare a matrix of 3x3. And initialize all its locations with 0;

Ans:

int matrix [3] [3] ;

matrix [0] [0] = 0;

matrix [0] [1] = 0;

matrix [0] [2] = 0;

matrix [1] [0] = 0;

matrix [1] [2] = 0;

matrix [1] [2] = 0;

matrix [2] [0] = 0;

matrix [2] [1] = 0;

matrix [2] [2] = 0;

we can also do it as given below

int matrix [3][3] = { 0 }; //all elements 0

No: 31 ( Marks: 3 )

Which one (copy constructor or assignment operator) will be called in each of the following code segment?

1) Matrix m1 (m2);

2) Matrix m1, m2;

m1 = m2;

3) Matrix m1 = m2;

Ans:

1) Matrix m1 (m2); copy constructor

2) Matrix m1, m2;

m1 = m2; assignment operator

3) Matrix m1 = m2; assignment operator

Question No: 32 ( Marks: 3 )

What will be the output of following function if we call this function by passing int 5?

template T reciprocal(T x) {return (1/x); }

Ans:

1/5

Question No: 33 ( Marks: 3 )

Identify the errors in the following member operator function and also correct them.

math * operator(math m);

math * operator (math m)

{

math temp;

temp.number= number * number;

return number;

}

ANS:

The errors are in the arguments of the member operation function and also in the body of operator member function.

Correct function should be

math *operator(math *m);

math *operator (math *m)

{

math temp;

temp = m;

temp.number= number * number;

return temp.number;

}

Question No: 34 ( Marks: 5 )

Write a program which defines three variables of type double which store three different values including decimal points, using setprecision manipulators to print all these values with different number of digits after the decimal number.

Ans:

#include

#include

int main ()

{

double x1 = 12345624.72345

double x2 = 987654.12345

double x3 = 1985.23456

cout setprecision (3) x1 endl;

cout setprecision (4) x2 endl;

cout setprecision (5) x3 endl;

return 0;

}

Question No: 35 ( Marks: 5 )

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using templates?

Ans:

Many thing can be possible without using templates but it do offer several clear advantages not offered by any other techniques:

Advanatages:

• Templates are easier to write than writing several versions of your similar code for different types. You create only one generic version of your class or function instead of manually creating specializations.

• Templates are type-safe. This is because the types that templates act upon are known at compile time, so the compiler can perform type checking before errors occur.

• Templates can be easier to understand, since they can provide a straightforward way of abstracting type information.

• It help in utilizing compiler optimizations to the extreme. Then of course there is room for misuse of the templates. On one hand they provide an excellent mechanism to create specific type-safe classes from a generic definition with little overhead.

Disadvantages:

On the other hand, if misused

• Templates can make code difficult to read and follow depending upon coding style.

• They can present seriously confusing syntactical problems esp. when the code is large and spread over several header and source files.

• Then, there are times, when templates can "excellently" produce nearly meaningless compiler errors thus requiring extra care to enforce syntactical and other design constraints. A common mistake is the angle bracket problem.

Question No: 36 ( Marks: 5 )

Suppose a program has a math class having only one data member number.

Write the declaration and definition of operator function to overload + operator for the statements of main function.

math obj1, obj2;

obj2= 10 + obj1 ;

Ans:

#include

math

{

mth operator + (obj1,obj2)

mth operator + (obj1,obj2)

{

mth operator + (obj1,obj2)

mth operator + (obj1,obj2)

}

}

……………………………………………………………………………

FINALTERM EXAMINATION

Question No: 1 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

There are mainly -------------------- types of software

► Two

► Three

► Four

► Five

Question No: 2 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

seekg() and write() are functionally _________________ .

► Different

► Identical

► Two names of same function

► None of the above

Question No: 3 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

When a pointer is incremented, it actually jumps the number of memory addresses

► According to data type

► 1 byte exactly

► 1 bit exactly

► A pointer variable can not be incremented

Question No: 4 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

setw is a parameterized manipulator.

► True

► False

Question No: 5 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

eof( ), bad( ), good( ), clear( ) all are manipulators.

► True

► False

Question No: 6 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

In functions that return reference, use __________variables.

► Local

► Global

► Global or static

► None of the given option

Question No: 7 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

The declarator of Plus (+) member operator function is

► Class-Name operator + (Class-Name rhs)

► operator Class-Name + ( )

► operator Class-Name + ( rhs)

► Class-Name operator + ( )

Question No: 8 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one

The compiler does not provide a copy constructor if we do not provide it.

► True

► False

CS504 quiz 3 and final term paper 2011-2012 virtual university of pakistan

Sat, 14 Jan 2012 03:13:00 -0500

CS504 quiz 3 and final term paper 2011-2012 virtual university of Pakistan

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cs403 full solve paper fall 2011-2012 virtual university of pakistan

Sat, 14 Jan 2012 03:08:15 -0500

[SIZE="4"]solve paper in attachment [/SIZE]

Which of the following is one of the purposes of using DDL commands?

inserting records into databases

updating records into databases

manipulating databases

creating and destroying databases

Which of the following is incorrect about alter table statement?

Cannot be used to modify type or size of an existing column

Can be used to delete a column

Can not be used to create a new table

Can be used to add column in the existing table

Which of the following is used to retrieve and insert information from database?

DML

DDL

DCL

Both DML and DDL

Which of the following is used with INSERT command to insert values in a DB table?

ONTO

INTO

UPTO

WITH

In SQL, which command is used to modify the rows of tables.

Update

Insert

Browse

Append

Identify the basic part(s) of a SELECT statement?

SELECT

FROM

Both SELECT and FROM

DISTINCT

Columns used to uniquely identify individual rows of a given table, may be specified to be not NOT NULL.

True

False

Objective of an order by clause is to display or arrange output of a select statement in a particular order.

True

False

Which of the following is not a part of an INSERT statement?

INTO

VALUE

INSERT

Modify

The ________ operator allows to use wild cards in the where clause of an SQL statement.

Select correct option:

IN

FROM

LIKE

None of the above.

Question # 3 of 10 ( Start time: 06:15:54 PM ) Total Marks: 1

Which of the following is not an aggregate function

Select correct option:

AVG

SUM

UPPER

MAX

Question # 4 of 10 ( Start time: 06:16:23 PM ) Total Marks: 1

UPDATE command belongs to which type of Classification

Select correct option:

DML

DDL

DCL

DQL

Question # 6 of 10 ( Start time: 06:18:52 PM ) Total Marks: 1

GRANT belongs to which type of SQL commands classification

Select correct option:

DML

DDL

DCL

DQL

Question # 7 of 10 ( Start time: 06:20:21 PM ) Total Marks: 1

DML does not used to :

Select correct option:

add new rows to tables

retrieve rows from table

modify the rows of tables

alter a table definition

Question # 9 of 10 ( Start time: 06:22:02 PM ) Total Marks: 1

Which of the following SQL statements used to control access to the data and to the database?

Select correct option:

GRANT

REVOKE

Both GRANT and REVOKE

SELECT

Which of the following is the correct syntax for adding a new column into an existing table.

Select correct option:

ALTER TABLE table_name { ALTER [COLUMN] column type [(size)] [DEFAULT default] }

ALTER TABLE table_name { ADD [COLUMN] column type [(size)] [DEFAULT default] }

Both I and II.

None of the above.

DML does not used to

Add new Rows to tables

Retrieve Rows from table

Modify the rows of tables

Alter table definition

The _________ function helps reduce the need to use mutiple OR conditions.

Like

IN

AND

Between

Columns used to uniquely identify individual rows of a given table, may be specified to be not NOT NULL.

TRUE

FALSE

In SQL, which command is used to delete rows from table.

Delete

Remove

Truncate

Both I and II

Which of the fllowing clauses allows to sort the records in result set?

Where

Order by

From

Having

Which of the following SQL statements used to control access to the data and to the database?

Grant

Revoke

Both Grant and Revoke

Select

Which of the following is used with INSERT command to insert values in a DB table?

ONTO

INTIO

UPTO

WITH

In SQL queries, while creating tables or relations in database, key columns may be specified by

Bull

Not Null

Data Type

None of the above

Which of the following is not an aggregate function

AVG

SUM

UPPER

MAX

_______ Operators are the ones that require two operands on both sides of the operator.

Double

Tow Sided

Binary

None of the given options

What happened if the Where clause is omitted from a Delete Statement?

All record from the table are deleted

No record from the tables will be deleted

First record of the tables will be deleted

The statement will not be executed and will give a syntax error

Grant belong to which types of SQL command classification

DML

DDL

DCL

DQL

Update command belong to which type of classification

DML

DDL

DCL

DQL

Which of the following is incorrect about alter table statement?

Cannot be used to modify type or size of an existing column

Can be used to delete a column

Can not be used to create a new table

Can be used to add column in the existing table

Which of the following is not true regarding clustering ?

It increases the efficiency since related records are placed close to each other.

Clustering makes records, difficult to access

Suitable to relatively static situations

It is a process, which means to place record from different tables to places in adjacent physical locations.

Truncate command responses time is ____________ as compared to delete command.

Poor

Same

Better

Worst

Which of the following is a String function in SQL

Count

LEN

SQRT

SIN

Revoke is a __________ Statement

Data Definition

Control Access

Data Manipulation

Data Description

GRANT is a _____________ command.

DDL

DML

DCL

None of the above

Which of the following is one of the purposes of using DDL commands?

Inserting records into databases

Updating records into databases

Manipulation databases

Creating and destroying databases

Which of the following is not a part of an INSERT statement?
Select correct option:
INTO
VALUES
INSERT
MODIFY

Consider a table named “emp” having fields Empname, EmpID, Age, salary. Which of the following is true if the following SQL statement tries to execute? SELECT * FROM emp WHERE Empname=’ALI’ ORDERBY Age;

The statement has a syntax error
The statement displays the entire fields from emp in which the Empname is ALI in any order
The statement displays the entire fields from emp in which the Empname is ALI in descending order of their age
The statement displays the entire fields from emp in which the Empname is ALI in ascending order of their age

In SQL, which command is used to modify the rows of tables.
Select correct option:
UPDATE
INSERT
BROWSE
APPEND

In SQL, which command is used to delete rows from table.
Select correct option:
DELETE
REMOVE
TRUNCATE
Both I and II

In SQL queries, while creating tables or relations in database, key columns may be specified by
Select correct option:
Null
Not Null
Data Type
None of the above

What happens if the WHERE clause is omitted from a DELETE statement?
All records from the table are deleted
No record from the table will be deleted
First record of the table will be deleted
The statement will not be executed and will give a syntax error

Truncate command response time is ____ as compared to Delete command.
Select correct option:
Poor
Same
Better
worst

Which of the following syntax of the functions in SQL is used to add column values?
Select correct option:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expression)
MAX(expression)
SUM(expression) Not Sure

Which of the following is used to retrieve and insert information from database?
Select correct option:
DML
DDL
DCL
Both DML and DDL

Which of the following is used to filter rows according to some condition(s)?
Select correct option:
SELECT
FROM
WHERE
UPDATE

Question # 1 of 10 ( Start time: 09:52:41 PM ) Total M a r k s: 1

Which of the following is used with INSERT command to insert values in a DB table?

Select correct option:

ONTO

INTO

UPTO

WITH

Which of the following is a correct way of selecting all the columns from a table called PERSONS?

Select correct option:

SELECT FROM * Persons

SELECT * FROM Persons

SELECT * WHERE Persons

SELECT WHERE * Persons

The ________ operator allows to use wild cards in the where clause of an SQL statement.

Select correct option:

IN

FROM

LIKE

None of the above.

Which of the following statements creates a database named IMDB.

Select correct option:

CREATE DATABASE IMDB;

CREATE DB IMDB;

ADD DATABASE named IMDB;

CREATE IMDB DATABASE;

Which of the following is not true regarding clustering?

Select correct option:

It increases the efficiency since related records are placed close to each other

Clustering makes records, difficult to access

Suitable to relatively static situations.

It is a process, which means to place records from different tables to place in adjacent physical locations

Which of the following is used to filter rows according to some condition(s)?

Select correct option:

SELECT

FROM

WHERE

UPDATE

Question # 7 of 10 ( Start time: 09:55:14 PM ) Total M a r k s: 1

Which of the following is not an aggregate function

Select correct option:

AVG

SUM

UPPER

MAX

CREATE TABLE and CREATE index belongs to which type of SQL commands

Select correct option:

DML

DDL

DCL

DQL

Question # 9 of 10 ( Start time: 09:55:59 PM ) Total M a r k s: 1

In SQL, which command is used to modify the rows of tables.

Select correct option:

UPDATE

INSERT

BROWSE

APPEND

SQL is used for:
Select correct option:

Creating, managing and deleting tables and manage the relationships among the stored date.
Generating queries, organizing, managing and retrieving data stored in a database.
Maintaining data integrity and coordinate data sharing.
All of the above

Which of the following is used to filter rows according to some condition(s)?
Select correct option:

SELECT
FROM
WHERE
UPDATE

Which language is used to permit or prohibit access to a table?
Select correct option:

DCL
DDL
DML
All of the above.

Which of the following is a String function in SQL

COUNT
LEN
SQRT
SIN

Truncate is an alternative of Delete command.
Select correct option:
True
False

Which of the following SQL statements used to control access to the data and to the database?
Select correct option:

GRANT
REVOKE
Both GRANT and REVOKE
SELECT

Data Manipulation Language (DML) is the set of commands used to maintain and query a database including updating, inserting, modifying and retrieving data.
Select correct option:

True
False

Which of the following is NOT a DDL command?
Select correct option:
Create DB
Create table
Delete
Drop

Which of the following is one of the purposes of using DDL commands?
Select correct option:

inserting records into databases
updating records into databases
manipulating databases
creating and destroying databases

Which of the following function falls in the category of Aggregate functions.
Select correct option:

SUM
MIN
MAX
All of the above

SQL stands for ______________.

I - Structured Query Language

II – Standard Query Language

lll- Status Query Language

Select correct option:

Only I

Only II

Both I and II

Only lll

Making a change to the conceptual schema of a database but not affecting the existing

external schemas is an example of

Physical data independence.

Concurrency control.

Logical data independence.

Functional dependency

SQL data types do not have support for storing multi-media objects directly.

Select correct option:

True

False

Truncate is an alternative of Delete command.

Select correct option:

True

False

What happens if the WHERE clause is omitted from a DELETE statement?

Select correct option:

All records from the table are deleted

No record from the table will be deleted

First record of the table will be deleted

The statement will not be executed and will give a syntax error

Query Analyzer is used to practice SQL in MS-Access and MS-SQL Server.

Select correct option:

True

False

Which of the following is used to retrieve and insert information from database?

Select correct option:

DML

DDL

DCL

Both DML and DDL

Which of the following can not be included into CREATE TABLE statement?

Select correct option:

Data types

Constraints

Attributes

Cardinalities

Which of the following is NOT a DDL command?

Select correct option:

Create DB

Create table

Delete

Drop

Which of the following SQL statements used to control access to the data and to the database?

Select correct option:

GRANT

REVOKE

Both GRANT and REVOKE

SELECT

A relational database is

Select correct option:

one that consists of two or more tables

a database that is able to process tables, queries, forms, reports and macros

one that consists of two or more tables that are joined in some way

the same as a flat file database

Which model operates at the lowest level of abstraction?

Select correct option:

conceptual

internal

external

physical

A________is used to maintain a connection between the users of the database system.

Select correct option:

mail server

file server

client-server

none of the given

A collection of concepts that can be used to describe the structure of a database

Select correct option:

Database

DBMS

Data model

Data

Data about data is metadata

Select correct option:

True

False

A primary key is an attribute (or set of attributes) that has been chosen for an entity, whose values are used to uniquely identify a particular instance of an entity.

Select correct option:

True

False

Partially True

None of the given

Which of the following is INCORRECT statement concerning the database design process?

Select correct option:

During requirements collection and analysis phase, one can gather the data requirements of database users.

By referring to a high level data model, it is possible to understand the data requirements of the users, entity types, relationships and constraints.

Transformation of the high level data model into the implementation data model is called logical design or data model mapping.

During the logical design phase of internal storage structures, access paths and file organization for the database files are specified.

Which feature of database provides conversion from inconsistent state of DB to a consistent state ensuring minimum data loss?

Select correct option:

User accessible catalog

Data processing

Recovery service

Authorization service

Who is responsible for authorizing access to the database, for coordinating and monitoring its use?

Select correct option:

Database Designer

Database Administrator

End User

Application Programmer

Which of the following describes the job of a database administrator?

Select correct option:

Development, implementation operation of the physical database

Creation of the system catalog

Monitoring and controlling database security and authorization: Setting up controls to ensure the quality and integrity of data

All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a component of a DFD?

Select correct option:

Dataflow

Datastore

External entities

Relationship between external entities

The Entity Relation Model models

Select correct option:

Entities, Relationships and Processes

Entities and Relationships

Relationships

Entities

A relational database system is based on the concept(s) of:

Select correct option:

A network of data records

Nested tables

Tables, rows and columns

A tree-like structure of data

Data Manipulation Language (DML) is the set of commands used to maintain and query a database including updating, inserting, modifying and retrieving data.

Select correct option:

True

False

DML does not used to :

Add new rows to tables

Retrieve row from tables

Modify the rows of tables

Alter a table definition

What does the abbreviation DBMS stand for?

Database Manipulation Software.

Data Borrowing and Movement Software

Digital Base Mapping System.

Database Management System.

Identify the language which is used to specify database schema.

DCL

DML

DDL

Non of the above

Columns used to uniquely identify individual rows of a given table, may be specified to be not NOT NULL.

True

False

Value of a function in SQL is always determined by the input parameters

True

False

Quiz No. 3 13-01-2012.doc (Size: 86 KB / Downloads: 359)

HRM624 Conflict Management FINALTERM solve papers fall 2011-2012

Sat, 14 Jan 2012 02:59:54 -0500

[SIZE="4"]full solve paper in attachment [/SIZE]

Question No: 1 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The only constant thing in this world is:
► Values
► Change
► Conflict
► Perception

Question No: 2 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following method of negotiation involves only one neutral party to resolve a conflict among disputants?
► Mediation
► Simple negotiation
► Unassisted negotiation
► Negotiation with advocates

Question No: 3 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which one of the following is likely to be highest level of trust?
► Calculus-based
► Experience-based
► Knowledge-based
► Identification-based

Question No: 4 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
One of the parties is willing to take a risk that s/he will lose for the opportunity to obtain a huge recovery is what type of barrier in conflict resolution?
► Jackpot syndrome
► Lack of ripeness
► Loss aversion
► Mistrust

Question No: 5 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following style demonstrates a low level of concern for a person himself and a high level of concern for others?
► Compromising
► Integrating
► Obliging
► Avoiding

Question No: 6 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A manager of the restaurant has dismissed the waiter from his job because he served rotten food to a customer. This is the example of what type of power?

► Referent power
► Coercive power
► Normative power
► Reward power

Question No: 7 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Physical strength is the source of which power?

► Coercive power
► Referent power
► Normative power
► Expert power

Question No: 8 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Diversity issues are related to all of the following, EXCEPT:
► Power
► Culture
► Stereotyping
► Compromise

Question No: 9 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The type of power which influences people by offering them something they want, is known as:
► Reward power
► Normative power
► Coercive power
► Referent power

Question No: 10 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In stereotyping we draw inferences about a person’s:
► Past, present and future
► Anticipated traits and behaviors based on logic
► Anticipated behaviors based on his/her social category
► All of the given options

Question No: 11 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Over emphasis on a piece of information which may not be so important to determine a certain event, is representing which of the following aspect of stereotype?

► Explaining away
► Selecting Weighting Processes
► Stereotype over interpretation
► Stereotype consistent perception

Question No: 12 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The mediator’s primary function is to narrow the gap between extreme disputants' positions by providing evaluations of the merits of the dispute in:
► Mediation
► Evaluative mediation
► Facilitative mediation
► Nonbinding evaluations

Question No: 13 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is the most basic form of nonbinding evaluation consisting of an adjudication process and its outcome is not obligatory?

► Summary jury trial
► Neutral evaluation
► Minitrial
► Nonbinding arbitration

Question No: 14 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In which of the following, entities are created by contract to resolve disputes as they arise in the course of ongoing projects?
► Nonbinding arbitration
► Summary jury trial
► Neutral evaluation
► Dispute review board

Question No: 15 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The process of negotiation refers to all of the following, EXCEPT:
► The communication between parties
► The relationships among parties
► The bone of contention
► The styles parties adopt

Question No: 16 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is a legal process whereby a neutral third party hears the dispute and issues an award?
► Litigation
► Mediation
► Arbitration
► Collaboration

Question No: 17 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The suggested hierarchy of ADR methods suggests that:
► Evaluative mediation should come first
► Facilitative mediation should come first
► Nonbinding evaluation should come first
► Nonconsensual processes should come first

Question No: 18 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is a clear picture of Individualistic culture?
► It provides more opportunities to promote an individual
► Its preferences and structures tend to be invisible to inhabitants
► It provides more opportunities to handle a conflict in a better way
► All of the given options

Question No: 19 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Theory of Social Ecology includes which of the following important institutions for operation of all human beings?

► Mass media
► Court systems
► School Organizations
► All of the given institutions

Question No: 20 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is/are the motivating factor/s for the individual during a conflict?
► Principles
► Aspirations
► Values
► All of the given options

Question No: 21 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following power is the flip side of Coercive power?
► Reward/exchange power
► Normative power
► Expert power
► Referent power

Question No: 22 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The major problem with stereotyping is/are:
► It is undignified to be stereotyped
► The attributions one makes may be totally wrong
► Stereotypes are usually based on limited knowledge
► All of the given options

Question No: 23 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Who has no independent decision-making power?
► Civil Judge
► Mediator
► Advocate
► Councilor

Question No: 24 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Mediation is distinguished from other ADR processes in which of the following way?
► In mediation, the neutral party issues a decision
► In mediation, the neutral party does not issue a decision
► In mediation, the disputants do not retain the power to settle
► All of the given options

Question No: 25 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In which type of mediation, mediator provides a range of suggested settlements?
► Facilitative
► Evaluative
► Both facilitative and evaluative
► Neither facilitative nor evaluative

Question No: 26 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
How mediators deal with legal issues during the mediation process?
► Through Privileged communications
► Advice to seek guidance from legal expert
► Do not face any legal issues during mediation
► Use their own expertise of law

Question No: 27 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In which of the following nonbinding evaluation process representatives of the disputants have the authority to settle the case?
► Summary jury trial
► Neutral evaluation
► Minitrial
► Dispute Review Board

Question No: 28 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The effectiveness of organizational conflict management has been recognized lately by the development of:
► Dispute resolution systems
► Court connected ADR
► Online ADR
► Med-Arb

Question No: 29 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In which of the following process the case is presented to an arbitrator who decides but keeps the decision secret and then the disputants attempt to mediate a settlement?
► Med-Arb
► Arb-Med
► Incentive Arbitration
► Ombuds

Question No: 30 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Conflicts can be prevented and minimized by addressing them at:
► Provincial Level
► Federal Level
► Local community level
► Central Level

Question No: 31 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
All of the following are tactics used in evaluative mediation EXCEPT:
► Conflict escalation
► Instilling doubt
► Case evaluation
► Caucusing

Question No: 32 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
All of the following are tactics used in integrating style of negotiation EXCEPT:
► Expanding the pie
► Undercutting
► Logrolling
► Bridging

Question No: 33 ( Marks: 3 )
Why most of the People indulge in Stereotyping inspite of in-depth investigation?

Question No: 34 ( Marks: 3 )
In which situation, mediation is recommended the most?

Question No: 35 ( Marks: 3 )
What factors should be considered before conducting the process of arbitration?

Question No: 36 ( Marks: 5 )
If the extreme enemies want to adopt the means other than litigation to resolve their issue, which method would be the most effective for them?

Question No: 37 ( Marks: 5 )
Describe a situation in which 'Avoidance' could be the best possible solution.

Question No: 38 ( Marks: 5 )
What steps should be followed after the arbitration process for making it successful?

Question No: 39 ( Marks: 10 )
What are the main differences between Facilitative and Evaluative mediation?

Question No: 40 ( Marks: 10 )
Write down at least TEN reasons of uniqueness of the mediation.
[/B]

Fall 2009_FinalTerm_HRM624 (1).doc (Size: 51 KB / Downloads: 209)

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